When I interpret Scripture I always start with three fundamental premises that are declared in Scripture. First that ALL Scripture is plenarily inspired by God the Holy Spirit Himself (this means that right down to every jot and title is inspired). Second that God cannot lie. Titus 1:2 Third that the Word of God does not have trickery, falsehood, all is plain. Proverbs 8.
I have yet to meet, or read on line, a Bible-believing Christian who does not explain away some Biblical reference which fails to conform to their own view of what a Bible-believing Christian should believe. One example in my personal experience was the pastor who teaches that Christians should never drink alcohol, then said that surely our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ would not have turned water into wine for the guests at a wedding feast. I have the same problem with explaining away James 2:14-26 as "about justification before men, not before God." That is not what James said. That is what someone who doesn't want to believe James is talking about justification before God would naturally suggest. Martin Luther had the same problem - he came close to arguing that James should be deleted from the Protestant version of the Bible, along with six books accepted by the Roman church which WERE deleted.
I believe that if two Bible verses conflict, we generally have to admit that no doctrinal explanation, which is necessarily a matter of human reasoning, can reconcile them. WE can't be the ones to chose which verse modifies the other verse, or vice versa. The only exception is, if Jesus said it, then it takes precedence over Paul, Peter, James, John... But we can only hope we understood Jesus correctly.
Since salvation is ultimately a matter of grace, not our own merit, I don't believe most of the criteria being discussed here are definitive. Does God have the power and authority to extend his grace to one who has not trusted that the Christ paid the full price of their sins? Could God of his mere grace and mercy forgive someone who seeks to please God on their own terms? Of course, whether we like it or not. God may even extend his grace to an atheist. If He does so, none of us will have anything to say about it.
I have yet to meet, or read on line, a Bible-believing Christian who does not explain away some Biblical reference which fails to conform to their own view of what a Bible-believing Christian should believe
That’s quite a statement. I’d find it more believable if you were to say that you haven’t found someone you think is completely consistent. The classis “What do you DO with this verse then?” is along the same thinking as your statement here. Just because you don’t agree with someone doesn’t mean they are “explaining away” anything. I don’t mean to be offensive, but that question, and the statement you made says more about the person asking and making it than the person they are describing.
One example in my personal experience was the pastor who teaches that Christians should never drink alcohol, then said that surely our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ would not have turned water into wine for the guests at a wedding feast.
I have the same problem with explaining away James 2:14-26 as "about justification before men, not before God." That is not what James said. That is what someone who doesn't want to believe James is talking about justification before God would naturally suggest. Martin Luther had the same problem - he came close to arguing that James should be deleted from the Protestant version of the Bible, along with six books accepted by the Roman church which WERE deleted.
I believe that if two Bible verses conflict, we generally have to admit that no doctrinal explanation, which is necessarily a matter of human reasoning, can reconcile them. WE can't be the ones to chose which verse modifies the other verse, or vice versa. The only exception is, if Jesus said it, then it takes precedence over Paul, Peter, James, John... But we can only hope we understood Jesus correctly.
Since salvation is ultimately a matter of grace, not our own merit, I don't believe most of the criteria being discussed here are definitive. Does God have the power and authority to extend his grace to one who has not trusted that the Christ paid the full price of their sins? Could God of his mere grace and mercy forgive someone who seeks to please God on their own terms? Of course, whether we like it or not. God may even extend his grace to an atheist. If He does so, none of us will have anything to say about it.
These are the thoughts I had when I read the comment. How about you?
4 comments:
This was intended as a comment... but it turned into an article.
Obviously there are some issues with the grammar.... sorry!
Kev
Brother, I would offer a different view - I do see a difference between Jesus and Peter and Paul.
For example - Jesus said
Luke 22:30 That ye may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom, and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
And the cross reference in Matthew
Matthew 19:28-29 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the REGENERATION when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall INHERIT everlasting life.
Jesus speaks here of an earthly kingdom - eating and drinking - He shall sit on the throne of His glory. This time, called "In the regeneration" is the Millennial Kingdom. The apostles are appointed twelve thrones where they will judge Israel. Evidently this is not eternity, since in eternity, there will be no need for Judgement.
Jesus says that those people that hath (past tense) forsaken stuff (prior to the Millennial Kingdom is the time of Jacob's Trouble - Tribulation), will INHERIT eternal life. In other words, they won't get it until they get to the Millennial Kingdom.
Compare to Paul
Romans 14:17 For the kingdom of God is NOT meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.
Paul and Jesus are not talking about the same Kingdom here. Jesus says they shall eat and drink in the kingdom and Paul says that the kingdom he is preaching is not meat and drink
Paul also never mentions eternal life as an inheritance. It is a present possession in this dispensation. Every mention of inheritance in Paul's epistles refer to rewards.
While I heartily agree with the rebuke to the original comment that was posted, because it was needed, and the OP had some grave errors (such as putting words in red above the complete word of God), I don't see how apparent contradictions make Christianity false. That's why we must rightly divide. There are contradictions in the scriptures if we don't rightly divide. I showed one above.
P.S. (I forgot you could use html tags in here so my caps are for emphasis, not shouting).
Hi Luke,
I haven't read your post in detail but I wanted to reply quickly.
Notice I wrote about "context" in the article.
Paul and Jesus are often speaking about different "kingdoms" for sure. The one that Messiah the Prince (Jesus) teaches the Jews about is their promised Kingdom that He'll rule from Jerusalem.
Paul teaches us the Church (not really Gentiles as the title means to be apart from God) about the Kingdom of Heaven.
The nature of these two are different, as you have rightly noted. Therefore when Jesus is speaking of the Jewish Kingdom He is not contradicted by Paul's words.
They are talking about different subjects.
This relates very well to our discussion about James 2.
Kev
Luke you said,
I don't see how apparent contradictions make Christianity false. That's why we must rightly divide.
"apparent" contradictions do not - but ACTUAL in context contradictions surely would.
If Paul, Jesus and Peter where talking about the same Kingdom and did not agree completely then the Bible could not be true.
However, such never ever occurs in the Scriptures.
Kev
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